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Free Paper 1 practice

Free HKSI Paper 1 practice questions

Answer twelve reviewed questions spanning all nine chapters. No account is required, and every question includes an explanation.

Updated 16 July 2026

0/12 answered

Question 1

Chapter 1

ABC Pension Fund, a mandatory provident fund scheme, engages XYZ Asset Management Limited to manage its investment portfolio. Under Hong Kong's regulatory framework, what role does XYZ Asset Management Limited most likely play?

Answer and explanation

B. Intermediary

Explanation: XYZ Asset Management Limited manages the investment portfolio on behalf of ABC Pension Fund, making it a service provider to the fund. According to the manual, asset and fund managers fall under the category of intermediaries, who provide products and services to principals and investors. Option A is incorrect because an investor typically invests for its own account, whereas XYZ acts on behalf of another. Option C is incorrect because a principal acts mainly for its own benefit, not as an agent. Option D is incorrect because professional support services (e.g. lawyers, accountants) supplement, rather than directly manage, investments.

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Question 2

Chapter 2

Mr. Lee, a director of HK Co Ltd, negotiates a supply agreement between HK Co and a firm in which he has a substantial indirect interest. He does not disclose this interest to the board. Which statement is correct under the Companies Ordinance?

Answer and explanation

C. Mr. Lee must disclose the nature and extent of his interest; failure breaches his duty.

Explanation: Under the Companies Ordinance, if a director has a material interest in a transaction with the company, he must disclose the nature and extent of that interest to the other directors (CO s.536). Mr. Lee’s undisclosed substantial indirect interest constitutes a breach of this statutory duty. Option A is wrong because the obligation to disclose exists regardless of whether the deal is at arm’s length. Option B is wrong because the company has other remedies, such as voiding the contract, not limited to damages. Option D is wrong because the contract is voidable at the company’s election rather than automatically void.

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Question 3

Chapter 3

A licensed corporation was convicted of failing to maintain proper records. Its compliance manager was aware of the deficiencies and had authority to act but did nothing. Based on the SFO, which statement is correct regarding the manager's liability?

Answer and explanation

B. Personal liability may arise from her connivance in the offence.

Explanation: Section 390 of the SFO provides that where an offence under the SFO is committed by a corporation and it is proved to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer of the corporation (which includes senior management, such as a compliance manager who reaches the threshold of a manager-in-charge of core functions), that officer also commits the offence. Ms. Lee's awareness of the breach and failure to act despite having authority constitute connivance. Option A is wrong because corporate liability does not automatically shield officers from personal liability under the SFO. Option C is wrong because mere status as an officer is insufficient; participation or connivance is required. Option D is wrong because liability can arise from connivance, not just from personally committing the physical act.

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Question 4

Chapter 4

Under the Securities and Futures (Financial Resources) Rules, a licensed corporation engaged in Type 1 regulated activity holds excess liquid capital above its required liquid capital. However, its liquid capital drops to 115% of its required liquid capital. What is the licensed corporation's immediate obligation under the Rules?

Answer and explanation

C. It need not cease regulated activities but must notify the SFC in writing within one business day.

Explanation: Under the SFO and the Financial Resources Rules, a licensed corporation that fails to maintain the required liquid capital (i.e., liquid capital falls below 100% of the required amount) must immediately cease regulated activities and notify the SFC. However, if the liquid capital merely falls below 120% of the required liquid capital but remains above the required level, the corporation must notify the SFC in writing but is not required to cease regulated activities. Since the scenario describes a drop to 115%, only the notification duty is triggered.

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Question 5

Chapter 5

Jennifer is a credit rating analyst responsible for assigning a rating to a corporate bond issuer. While conducting the rating analysis, Jennifer actively participates in discussions with the issuer about the fee structure for the rating service. Under the Code of Conduct for Persons Providing Credit Rating Services, which statement is correct?

Answer and explanation

C. Jennifer's actions are a violation because rating analysts are prohibited from discussing fees with the entities they rate.

Explanation: The Code of Conduct for Persons Providing Credit Rating Services explicitly prohibits representatives directly involved in the rating process from initiating or participating in any discussions about fees or payments with the entities they rate, in order to safeguard the objectivity and independence of the rating process. Jennifer's direct involvement in fee discussions is therefore a clear violation. Options A, B and D incorrectly suggest that some circumstances could make such discussions acceptable, whereas the prohibition is absolute regardless of the circumstances or the presence of a supervisor.

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Question 6

Chapter 6

XYZ Securities Ltd, a licensed corporation, has recently experienced a series of compliance failures and transactions with related parties at non-market prices. The board currently has only one independent non-executive director, and the chairman also serves as the CEO. In light of these issues, which of the following measures would most directly address the company’s corporate governance weaknesses according to Hong Kong regulatory expectations?

Answer and explanation

C. Establish an audit committee with a majority of independent non-executive directors and separate the chairman and CEO roles.

Explanation: The study manual (Section 6.9) lists measures to enhance corporate governance, including putting proper checks and balances in place—such as separating the roles of chairman and CEO, appointing independent non-executive directors, and establishing an independent audit committee. The scenario highlights a lack of board independence and combined chairman/CEO roles, so directly implementing such structural governance mechanisms is the most targeted solution. Option A addresses administrative efficiency, Option B focuses on AML compliance training, and Option D deals with capital adequacy—none of which directly resolve the governance structural deficiencies.

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Question 7

Chapter 7

An HKFE participant's client has an outstanding margin call and instructs the participant to open a new futures position. The participant knows the client has funds but has not yet transferred them to meet the margin call. Which of the following best reflects HKFE rules?

Answer and explanation

C. The participant must not approve the new position until the overdue margin has been fully paid.

Explanation: Option C is correct. Under HKFE Rules, if a client has a minimum margin overdue, the participant must not approve the client to open any new positions, regardless of the contract type or the client's promise to pay later. Option A is wrong because the prohibition is not contract-specific; Option B is wrong because the rules do not allow new positions while a margin call remains overdue, even with an undertaking; Option D is wrong because internal credit approval or higher margin rates cannot override the explicit prohibition on new positions when margin is overdue.

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Question 8

Chapter 8

A firm plans to convert an SFC-authorised unlisted unit trust into an ETF listed on the Main Board, and to launch an unlisted structured product linked to that ETF. Under the SFO and Listing Rules, which statement is correct?

Answer and explanation

A. The ETF must comply with Main Board Listing Rule Chapter 20 and obtain SFC authorisation; the structured product must be authorised under SFO s.104A.

Explanation: A is correct because a collective investment scheme (such as a unit trust) may only be offered to the public in Hong Kong if it is structured as a company and listed on the SEHK, or is authorised by the SFC. Since the ETF is being formed from a unit trust (and is not stated to be a company), it must obtain SFC authorisation under SFO s.104. The unlisted structured product is clearly not listed, so it must be authorised under SFO s.104A — there is no exemption merely because it is linked to an ETF. B is wrong because listing alone only permits a CIS to be offered to the public if the CIS is a company; a unit trust ETF remains a trust and requires separate authorisation. C and D are wrong because they treat the structured product as exempt, when it is not listed and must be authorised.

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Question 9

Chapter 9

The Market Misconduct Tribunal (MMT) has found that Dealer Y committed insider dealing. Investor A, who sold shares at a depressed price during the relevant period and suffered a loss, wishes to sue Dealer Y for damages. Which of the following best reflects Investor A's legal position?

Answer and explanation

C. Investor A may bring a civil claim and rely on the MMT's determination as evidence.

Explanation: Under the SFO, any person who suffers pecuniary loss as a result of market misconduct may sue for damages, regardless of whether they entered into the affected transactions. The right to sue is independent of any MMT or criminal proceedings. Further, a claimant in such a civil action is entitled to use the MMT's finding as evidence. Therefore, Investor A can bring a claim and rely on the MMT's report (C). Option A is wrong because direct counterparty status is not required. Option B is wrong because a prior criminal conviction is not a precondition to a civil suit. Option D is wrong because the SFO expressly allows MMT determinations to be adduced as evidence in private civil actions.

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Question 10

Chapter 4

A licensed corporation rehypothecates client securities. Which condition must be satisfied?

Answer and explanation

B. The client must give specific written consent before each rehypothecation, and the client must be a margin client.

Explanation: For rehypothecation of client securities, the client must be a margin client and must give specific written consent before each rehypothecation. Option A lacks the consent requirement; C allows verbal consent, which is insufficient; D imposes an incorrect limit (50%), which is not prescribed by the rules.

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Question 11

Chapter 5

Which of the following statements about the Manager-in-Charge (MIC) regime is correct?

Answer and explanation

D. Each core function must have at least one MIC

Explanation: Under the Manager-in-Charge (MIC) regime, each core function (e.g., overall management, risk, compliance, etc.) must have at least one MIC. MICs are not limited to Type 1 activity, need not be licensed representatives (they can be executive officers), and are subject to fit and proper requirements.

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Question 12

Chapter 6

Which of the following activities best characterises the integration stage of money laundering?

Answer and explanation

C. Using laundered funds to purchase a luxury apartment and renting it out

Explanation: Integration is the final stage where laundered funds are reintroduced into the legitimate economy, making them appear as normal income or assets. Purchasing a rental property and renting it out fits that description. Placement involves introducing illicit cash into the financial system, as described in A and D. Layering involves separating funds from their source through complex transactions, as described in B.

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